A bounded function $F$ is said to be of bounded variation on $\mathbb{R}$ if $F$ is of bounded variation on any finite sub-interval $[a, b]$, and $\sup_{a,b}T_F (a,b)<\infty$ $~~~~$(The $sup_{a,b}T_F(a,b)$ means the supreme taken over total variation of F on all finite interval $[a,b]$ )
And I want to prove that:
$\int_\mathbb{R}|F(x+h)-F(x)|dx\leq A |h|$
There is a Hint: write $F = F_1 − F_2$, where $F_1$ and $F_2$ are monotonic and bounded.
But I don't konw how to get the decomposite and it will be much easier for me if I get it.
If $F$ is of bounded variation on $\mathbb{R}$, then there is a finite signed measure $\mu_F$ whose variation $|\mu_F|$ has finite total mass, i.e. $|\mu_F|(\mathbb{R})<\infty$, and such that $\mu_F((a,b])=F(b)-F(a)$. Suppose $h>0$. Then by Fubini's theorem \begin{align} \int_\mathbb{R}|F(x+h)-F(x)|\,dx&=\int_\mathbb{R}\Big|\int_{(x,x+h]}\,d\mu_F(dy)\Big|\\ &\leq\int_\mathbb{R}\int_{(x,x+h]}|\mu_F|(dy)dx\\ &=\int_\mathbb{R}\Big(\int_{[y-h,y]}dx\Big)|\mu_F|(dy)\\ &=|\mu_F|(\mathbb{R})h \end{align}
The justification of the statements made here concerning existence and uniqueness of the finite signed measure $\mu_F$ such that $\mu_F((a,b])=F(b)-F(b)$ is based on standard results cover in many integration books and is all under the umbrella of Riemann-Stieltjes theorem.
Starting with:
There are many ways to prove this Theorem. In many textbooks (Folland, G. Real Analysis: Modern Techniques and Applications, Wiley, Theorem 1.16 pp. 35) they use the Caratheodory extension theorem.
For any function $F:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$, the variation of a function $F$ at $x$ is defined as: $$T_F(x) = \sup\{\sum^n_{k=1}|F(x_j)-F(x_{j-1})|:n\in\mathbb{N}, -\infty<x_0<\ldots<x_n=x\}$$ $F$ is of bounded variation if $T_F(x)$ there is $M>0$ such that $T_F(x)\leq M$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$.
The following result covered in many textbooks:
(See Folland, op. cit, pp. 102-103)
If $F$ is ringhtcontinuous, then an application of Proposiiotn 2 to $F_1$ and $F_2$ yields a signed measure $\mu_F=\mu_{F_1}-\mu_{F_2}$ on $\mathbb{R}$ such that $$\mu_F((a,b])=F(b)-F(a)$$ In fact, (see Folland, op. cit. pp. 104-105)