How can I prove that $\lceil z \rceil=z+\dfrac12-\dfrac{\tan^{-1}(\tan(\pi(z+0.5)))}{\pi}$ for all non-integer real numbers $z$?
Z cannot be an integer because then tan(pi*z + pi/2) would be undefined. I got this equation by messing around with arcsin(sin(x)), arccos(cos(x)), and arctan(tan(x)) and noticed that arctan(tan(x))-x looked liked a weird negative ceiling function, so I made it x-arctan(tan(x)), and saw a disproportional ceiling function: 
Then I changed the equation so that it was the arctan(tan(x)) became $\dfrac{\tan^{-1}(\tan(\pi(z+0.5)))}{\pi}$ and I added 0.5 to make it the ceiling function. I am looking for a mathematical proof that is relatively simple and only uses trig, low level calc, and algebra.
For a non-integer real number $z$, we can express $z = m + \frac{1}{2} + \alpha$ where $m$ is an integer, and $-\frac{1}{2} < \alpha < \frac{1}{2}$.
We have $\lceil z \rceil = m + 1$ and $\arctan(\tan (\pi (z + 0.5))) = \arctan(\tan (\pi\alpha))$ since the period of $\tan x$ is $\pi$.
Denote $y = \arctan(\tan (\pi\alpha))$. From definition of $\arctan x$, we have $y \in (-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})$ and $\tan y = \tan (\pi\alpha)$. Also, $\pi \alpha \in (-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})$. Thus, we have $y = \pi \alpha$ since $x\mapsto \tan x$ is strictly increasing on $(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})$. As a result, we have $\arctan(\tan (\pi\alpha)) = \pi\alpha$.
Thus, we have $z + \frac{1}{2} - \frac{\arctan(\tan (\pi (z + 0.5)))}{\pi} = m + \frac{1}{2} + \alpha + \frac{1}{2} - \alpha = m + 1$.
We are done.