So I know if you let $f_n(x) = \left(1+\frac x n \right)^ne^{-x}$, then $f(x) = e^{x}\cdot e^{-x} = 1$
Thus, the integral from $\int_a^b dx$ = $b-a$. I'm confused about how we know $f_n$ is uniformly continuous.
So I know if you let $f_n(x) = \left(1+\frac x n \right)^ne^{-x}$, then $f(x) = e^{x}\cdot e^{-x} = 1$
Thus, the integral from $\int_a^b dx$ = $b-a$. I'm confused about how we know $f_n$ is uniformly continuous.
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
Over any bounded subset, $(1+n^{-1}x)^n\to e^x$ uniformly.