Can anyone help to prove or disprove that: for all $a,b>0$ the following inequality holds true?
$${(b-a)^2\over (\log(b)-\log(a))^2}\ge ab$$
I tried to use some convex inequalities such as Jensen inequality but I did not succeed. Can someone provide me with a hint?
As the inequality is homogeneous and symmetric, it is enough to consider the case $b> a=1$, so we just need to show for $b = x> 1$, $$\left(\frac{x-1}{\log x}\right)^2 \geqslant x \quad \text{or equivalently,}\quad \log x \leqslant \sqrt x - \frac1{\sqrt x}$$
Note by AM-GM, $t+1 \geqslant 2\sqrt t \implies \dfrac{t+1}{2t^{3/2}} \geqslant \dfrac1t \implies $ $$\int_1^x \frac1t dt \leqslant \int_0^x\frac{t+1}{2t^{3/2}} dt\implies \log x \leqslant \sqrt x - \frac1{\sqrt x}$$ Hence proved.