$$f(m)=\sum\limits_{n = 1 }^ m (-1)^n \sin\left(\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} \frac{a \pi}{b}\right) \tag 1 $$
Where $a,b,m$ positive integers.
I have tested in WolframAlpha for many $a$ and $b$ values.
I conjecture (1) without proof that $f(m)$ function is periodic when $a,b,m$ positive integers and the sum of $f(m)$ is $0$ between period.
Edit: In other way to express my claim above in my conjecture ($1$) that $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^T f(k)=0 $ where ($T$) is the period value.
The wolframalpha link for testing some $a,b$ values
I also conjecture (2) without proof that the sum of $f(m)$ should be zero if $x$ is any real number.
$$f(m)=\sum\limits_{n = 1 }^ m (-1)^n \sin\left(\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}x\right) \tag 2 $$
$$ \lim\limits_{n \to \infty}\sum\limits_{k = 1 }^ n f(k)=0 \tag 3 $$
What is the period formula when $a,b$ are positive integers?
Please help me to prove my conjectures 1 and 2 or disprove .
Note that:$$\sum\limits_{k = 1 }^ n k^2= \frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} $$
EDIT:
The period value is ($T$) and $f(m)$ satisfies $f(m)=f(m+kT)$ relation where $k$ is non-negative integer.
Period values for some $a,b$ values:
$a=3$, $b=17$ ,$x=\frac{3 \pi}{17} \Rightarrow T=68$ (this example is given in the link) and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{68} f(k)=0 $
$a=1$, $b=2$ ,$x=\frac{ \pi}{2} \Rightarrow T=8$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^8 f(k)=0 $
$a=1$, $b=3$ ,$x=\frac{ \pi}{3} \Rightarrow T=36$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{36} f(k)=0 $
$a=1$, $b=4$ ,$x=\frac{ \pi}{4} \Rightarrow T=16$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{16} f(k)=0 $
$a=1$, $b=5$ ,$x=\frac{ \pi}{5} \Rightarrow T=20$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{20} f(k)=0 $
$a=1$, $b=6$ ,$x=\frac{ \pi}{6} \Rightarrow T=72$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{72} f(k)=0 $
$a=1$, $b=7$ ,$x=\frac{ \pi}{7} \Rightarrow T=28$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{28} f(k)=0 $
$a=2$, $b=7$ ,$x=\frac{ 2\pi}{7} \Rightarrow T=14$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{14} f(k)=0 $
$a=3$, $b=7$ ,$x=\frac{ 3\pi}{7} \Rightarrow T=56$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{56} f(k)=0 $
$a=4$, $b=7$ ,$x=\frac{ 4\pi}{7} \Rightarrow T=14$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{14} f(k)=0 $
$a=5$, $b=7$ ,$x=\frac{ 5\pi}{7} \Rightarrow T=28$ and $ \sum\limits_{k = 1 }^{28} f(k)=0 $
Thanks a lot for answers.
Please note that: I have posted a new question to generalize the problem. the link to the question
Your conjecture 1 is true and it is stated and proved as follows. On other hand, conjecture 2 is false and it is disproved below.
The proof is split in several steps.
Proof. We have $\sin(ax\pi/b)=(-1)^h\sin(ay\pi/b)$ if and only if \begin{align} &ax\pi/b\equiv(-1)^hay\pi/b\pmod{2\pi}& &\lor& &ax\pi/b\equiv\pi-(-1)^hay\pi/b\pmod{2\pi} \end{align} that's \begin{align} &ax\equiv(-1)^hay\pmod{2b}& &\lor& &ax\equiv b-(-1)^hay\pmod{2b} \end{align} which is equivalent to $ax\equiv kb+(-1)^{k+h}ay\pmod{2b}$.
Proof of 1. By Lemma 1 we have $\sin(at_{T-1-n}\pi/b)=-\sin(at_n\pi/b)$ hence \begin{align} f(T-1) &=\sum_{n=0}^{T-1}\sin(at_n\pi/b)\\ &=\sum_{n=0}^{T-1}\sin\left(t_{T-1-n}\frac{a\pi}b\right)\\ &=-\sum_{n=0}^{T-1}\sin\left(t_n\frac{a\pi}b\right)\\ &=-f(T-1) \end{align} hence $f(T-1)=0$.
Proof of 2. We have \begin{align} f(T+m) &=f(T-1)+\sum_{n=T}^{T+m}\sin(at_n\pi/b)\\ &=f(T-1)+\sum_{n=0}^m\sin(at_{T+n}\pi/b)\\ &=f(T-1)+(-1)^h\sum_{n=0}^m\sin(at_n\pi/b)\\ &=f(T-1)+(-1)^hf(m) \end{align}
Proof of 3. We have $f(2T+m)=-f(T+m)=f(m)$, hence $f$ has period $2T$ and \begin{align} \sum_{m=0}^{2T-1}f(m) &=\sum_{m=0}^{T-1}f(m)+\sum_{m=T}^{2T-1}f(m)\\ &=\sum_{m=0}^{T-1}f(m)+\sum_{m=0}^{T-1}f(T+m)\\ &=\sum_{m=0}^{T-1}f(m)-\sum_{m=0}^{T-1}f(m)\\ &=0 \end{align} from which the assertion follows.
Proof. We have \begin{align} s_{b+n}& =\sum_{k=0}^{b+n}k^2& s_{b-1-n}& =\sum_{k=0}^{b-1-n}k^2\\ & =\sum_{k=0}^bk^2+\sum_{k=b+1}^{b+n}k^2& & =\sum_{k=0}^{b-1}k^2-\sum_{k=b-n}^{b-1}k^2\\ & =s_b+\sum_{h=1}^n(b+h)^2& & =\sum_{k=0}^{b-1}k^2-\sum_{h=1}^n(b-h)^2\\ & \equiv s_b+\sum_{h=1}^nh^2& & \equiv s_{b-1}-\sum_{h=1}^nh^2\\ & =s_b+s_n\pmod b& & \equiv s_{b-1}-s_n\pmod b \end{align} hence \begin{align} t_{b+n}& =(-1)^{b+n}s_{b+n}& t_{b-1-n}& =(-1)^{b-1-n}s_{b-1-n}\\ & \equiv(-1)^{b+n}s_b+(-1)^{b+n}s_n& & \equiv (-1)^{b-1-n}s_{b-1}-(-1)^{b-1-n}s_n\\ & =(-1)^nt_b+(-1)^bt_n\pmod b& & =(-1)^nt_{b-1}+(-1)^bt_n\pmod b \end{align}
Now the proof of main statement.
Let $d=\gcd(b,3)$. From Lemma 3 \begin{align} t_{2db+n}&\equiv(-1)^nt_{2db}+t_n\pmod{2db}\\ t_{2db-1-n}&\equiv(-1)^nt_{2db-1}+t_n\pmod{2db} \end{align} Moreover, \begin{align} (-1)^nat_{2db}& =(-1)^na\frac{2db(2db+1)(4db+1)}6& t_{2db-1}& =-(-1)^na\frac{(2db-1)2db(4db-1)}6\\ & =(-1)^na\frac d3(2db+1)(4db+1)b& & =-(-1)^na\frac d3(2db-1)(4db-1)b\\ & \equiv b\pmod{2b}& & \equiv b\pmod{2b} \end{align} Consequently, \begin{align} at_{2db+n}&\equiv b+at_n\pmod{2b}\\ at_{2db-1-n}&\equiv b+at_n\pmod{2b} \end{align} hence, by Lemma 2.1, $f(2db-1)=0$, by Lemma 2.2 $f(2db+m)=-f(m)$. By Lemma 2.3, $f$ has period $4db$ and $$\sum_{m=0}^{4db-1}f(m)=0$$
Since $a,b$ are, by assumption, coprime, we have $2\nmid b$. Let $d=\gcd(b,3)$. From Lemma 3 we get \begin{align} t_{db+n}&\equiv(-1)^nt_{db}-t_n\pmod{db}\\ t_{db-1-n}&\equiv(-1)^nt_{db-1}-t_n\pmod{db} \end{align} Moreover, \begin{align} (-1)^nat_{db}& =(-1)^na\frac{db(db+1)(2db+1)}6& t_{db-1}& =-(-1)^na\frac{(db-1)db(2db-1)}6\\ & =(-1)^n\frac a2\frac d3\frac{db+1}2(2db+1)2b& & =-(-1)^n\frac a2\frac d3\frac{db-1}2(2db-1)2b\\ & \equiv 0\pmod{2b}& & \equiv 0\pmod{2b} \end{align} so that \begin{align} at_{db+n}&\equiv-at_n\pmod{2b}\\ at_{db-1-n}&\equiv-at_n\pmod{2b} \end{align} By Lemma 2.1 we have $f(db-1)=0$, while by Lemma 2.2 we get $f(db+m)=-f(m)$. Finally, by Lemma 2.3, $f$ has period $2db$ and $$\sum_{m=0}^{2db-1}f(m)=0$$
Conjecture 2 is false. For let $q$ be a non-zero polynomial with rational coefficients, $x$ be a real number and assume \begin{align} & \sum_{m=0}^\infty f(m)=0& \text{where }& f(m)=\sum_{n=0}^m(-1)^n\sin(q(n)x) \end{align} If $f(m)\xrightarrow{m\to\infty}0$ then $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\sin(q(n)x)=0$$ hence $\sin(q(n)x)\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}0$. Consequently $e^{2ixq(n)}\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}1$, hence $x\in\pi\Bbb Q$ by the Lemma 4 below.
Proof. By induction on $\deg p$. If $\deg p=0$, then $e^{iax}=1$ for some $a\in\Bbb Q$ ($a\neq 0$). This implies $ax\in 2\pi\Bbb Z$, hence $x\in\pi\Bbb Q$.
If $\deg p>0$, then $q(n)=p(n)-p(n-1)$ is a non-zero polynomial with $\deg q<\deg p$ and $$e^{ixq(n)}=\frac{e^{ixp(n)}}{e^{ixp(n-1)}}\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}1$$ hence $x\in\pi\Bbb Q$ by induction hypothesys.