Prove the Riemann-Lebesgue Theorem: If $f$ is an integrable function on $(-\infty, \infty)$ then $$ \lim _{k \rightarrow \infty} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) \cos k x \,dx=0 $$ So the Fourier transform $\hat{f}(k)$ of any $L^1$ function necessarily converges to zero as $|k| \rightarrow \infty$. Hint: First consider the case in which $f$ is a step function. Then consider the case that $f$ is bounded and vanishes outside a finite interval $[a, b] .$ Then consider $f \in L^1.$
I have proved the first two steps in the hint. But I don't see how to use them to prove the third step. Any help will be appreciated! Thank you!
For the third step:
Let $\epsilon>0$, then exists a simple function $\phi$ such that $\int|\phi-f| \leq \epsilon$
Thus $$|\int f(x)\cos{(kx)}dx| \leq \int |\phi -f|+|\int \phi(x)\cos{(kx)}dx|$$ $$\leq \epsilon+|\int \phi(x)\cos{(kx)}dx|$$
So $\limsup_{|k| \to +\infty}|\int f(x)\cos{(kx)}dx| \leq \epsilon+0=\epsilon$
Since $\epsilon>0$ is arbitrary,we have that $\limsup_{|k| \to +\infty}|\int f(x)\cos{(kx)}dx|=0$