I am given this problem:
let $a\ge0$,$b\ge0$, and the sequences $a_n$ and $b_n$ are defined in this way: $a_0:=a$, $b_0:=b$ and $a_{n+1}:= \sqrt{a_nb_n}$ and $b_{n+1}:=\frac{1}{2}(a_n+b_n)$ for all $n\in\Bbb{N}$
To prove is that both sequences converge and that they have the same limit. I don't know how to show this. I have spent 2 hours on this, no sign of success
The easy way to proceed, is to show that $a_n, b_n \geq 0$, and then $ b_{n+1} - a_{n+1} = \frac {1}{2} (\sqrt{b_{n}} -\sqrt{ a_{n}})^2$, so $ b_{n} \geq a_{n} \forall n \geq 2$.
Then, $a_{n+1} = \sqrt{a_n b_n} \geq a_n$ is an monotonically increasing sequence (after $n=2$).
$b_{n+1} = \frac {1}{2} (a_n + b_n) \leq b_n$ is a monotomically decreasing sequnece (after $n=2$).
Finally, $$ b_{n+1} - a_{n+1} = \frac {1}{2} (\sqrt{b_{n}} -\sqrt{ a_{n}})^2 \leq \frac {1}{2} (\sqrt{b_n} - \sqrt{a_n} ) ( \sqrt{b_n} + \sqrt{a_n} ) = \frac {1}{2} ( b_n - a_n) \leq \frac {1}{2^n} (b_1-a_1),$$ so the difference between the sequences go to 0. Hence, these sequences converge to the same limit.
Note: Of course we could show that since $a_i \leq b_2$, the limit of $a_i$ exists (since monotonic+bounded). But I think it's more fun to jump directly to the conclusion with the final step.