Let $A$ be an $m \times n$ matrix, where $m > n$, and $\alpha$ a real positive constant, prove that
$$\text{cond}_2(A^T A + \alpha I) \leq \text{cond}_2(A^T A)$$
where $I$ the identiy matrix. All norms indicate 2-norms.
My attempt:
I know that $\text{cond}_2(A^T A) = \sigma_{\max}^2/\sigma_{\min}^2$ where $\sigma_i$ are the diagonal elements of the singular value decomposition of $A$. Next, of which I'm unsure that it's true, I tried:
$$ \begin{align} \text{cond}_2(A^T A + \alpha I) &= \left( \max \limits_{x\neq0} \frac{\Vert(A^T A + \alpha I)x \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} \right) \cdot \left( \min \limits_{x\neq0} \frac{\Vert(A^T A + \alpha I)x \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} \right)^{-1} \\ &= \left( \max \limits_{x\neq0} \frac{\Vert A^T A x + \alpha Ix \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} \right) \cdot \left( \min \limits_{x\neq0} \frac{\Vert A^T A x + \alpha Ix \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} \right)^{-1} \\ &\leq \left( \max \limits_{x\neq0} \left[ \frac{\Vert A^T A x \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} + \frac{\Vert \alpha I x \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} \right]\right) \cdot \left( \min \limits_{x\neq0} \left[ \frac{\Vert A^T A x \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} + \frac{\Vert \alpha I x \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert}\right]\right)^{-1} \\ &= \left( \max \limits_{x\neq0} \frac{\Vert A^T A x \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} + 1 \right) \cdot \left( \min \limits_{x\neq0} \frac{\Vert A^T A x \Vert}{\Vert x \Vert} + 1\right)^{-1} \\ &= \frac{\sigma_{\max}^2+1}{\sigma_{\min}^2+1} \end{align}$$
If the above holds up, I believe all that's left to prove is, which I'm unable to,
$$ \frac{\sigma_{\max}^2+1}{\sigma_{\min}^2+1} \leq \frac{\sigma_{\max}^2}{\sigma_{\min}^2} $$
which seems to hold when I try it with random numbers in Matlab. Thanks in advance.
In fact, you made a mistake between lines 3 and 4. You should have ended up at $$ \frac{\sigma_{\max}^2+\alpha}{\sigma_{\min}^2+\alpha} \leq \frac{\sigma_{\max}^2}{\sigma_{\min}^2} $$ To prove that this is the case: let $p = \sigma_{\max}^2$, $q = \sigma_{\min}^2$. We note that with $q,\alpha >0$, we have $$ \frac{p + \alpha}{q + \alpha} = \frac{q + \alpha + (p-q)}{q + \alpha} = 1 + \frac{p - q}{q + \alpha} \leq \\ 1 + \frac{p - q}{q} = \frac{q + p-q}{q} = \frac{p}{q} $$ as desired.
Notes: We could also have used calculus: it suffices to compute the derivative of $f(x) = \frac{p + x}{q + x}$, and show that $f' < 0$ when $p\geq q>0$ and $x>0$. Also, if we divided the top and bottom by $\alpha$, we would see that it suffices to consider the $\alpha = 1$ case. In order to have a finite condition number, I assumed that $q = \sigma_{min} > 0$.