I don't understand Why 0 is the only accumulation point for set $\{1/n: n \in\mathbb{N}\}$ in the usual topology I think the derived set is the set including 0 according to the deffinition of accumulation point
2026-03-25 04:59:49.1774414789
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Prove that 0 is the only accumulation point for set $\{1/n: n \in\mathbb{N}\}$ in the usual topology
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I think that it is clear, that $0$ is an accumulation point of $A:=\{1/n: n \in \mathbb N\} .$
Now let $x \ne 0$. Then $|x|>0$, hence there is $N \in \mathbb N$ such that $1/n <|x|$ for all $n>N$. This gives: there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U$ contains at most finitely many elements of $A$. Therefore $x$ is not an accumulation point of $A$.
Your definition was
and hence by negation
Now consider that $a \neq 0$ and $A = \{ \frac{1}{n} \mid n \in \mathbb{N}_{>0} \}$.
If $a \in(-\infty , 0)$ we can choose $\varepsilon := \vert a\vert / 2$ such that $U :=B_\varepsilon$(a) only contains negative numbers and hence $(A - \{a\}) \cap U = \emptyset$ .
If $a \in (1 , \infty)$ we can choose $\varepsilon := \vert a - 1 \vert / 2$ such that $U :=B_\varepsilon(a)$ only contains numbers bigger than $1$ and hence $(A - \{a\}) \cap U = \emptyset$ .
If $a \in (0,1]$ we find an $n \in \mathbb{N}$ with $ \frac{1}{n+1} < a \leq \frac{1}{n} $ . If we then choose $\varepsilon := (n+1)^{-10000}$ (just to make sure), $U :=B_\varepsilon(a)$ will lay inbetwee the fractions and we have again $(A - \{a\}) \cap U = \emptyset$ .
This shows, that $a \neq 0$ can not be an accumulation point of $\{ \frac{1}{n} \mid n \in \mathbb{N}_{>0} \}$ .