This one's a simple one, just asking for confirmation...
Here's my proof :
Since A=B, then A⋃B = A⋃A = A ...1
and for the same reason : A⋂B = A⋂A = A ...2
So, from 1 and 2, we get : A⋂B = A⋃B
So, A = B ⇒ A⋂B = A⋃B
The reason I'm asking for confirmation for this is because my textbook had a longer method for doing this and this method just seems too small compared to that one.
Let me know if this is right
Thanks