Please let me know if this proof is right, I think it is but I still want confirmation
A - (B⋃C)
= A ⋂ (B⋃C)' [X-Y = X⋂Y']
= A ⋂ (B'⋂C') [(X⋃Y)' = (X'⋂Y') - De-Morgan's Law]
= (A⋂A) ⋂ (B'⋂C') [A = (A⋂A) - Idempotent Law]
= A ⋂ A ⋂ B' ⋂ C'
= A ⋂ B' ⋂ A ⋂ C' [Commutative Law]
= (A⋂B') ⋂ (A⋂C')
= (A-B) ⋂ (A-C) [X⋂Y' = X-Y]
Hence, Proved
Let me know what you think
Thanks...
Yes, your proof is correct (Good Work!) but note it is not complete in terms of justification; you need to note that fact that $\cap$ is associative (it may seem obvious to you that the unjustified steps will be understood, but when you're new to proofs, it's best to not cut corners):