I have a function $f$: $\mathbb R^n$$\,\to\,$$\mathbb R^n$ defined by $f(\hat{x}) = \hat{x} - 2(\hat{x} \cdot\hat{v})\hat{v}$, with $\mid \hat{v}\mid$ $= 1$. I'm looking to prove that this function is surjective.
I'm a bit rusty on vectors, however, so I'm struggling to solve for $\hat{x}$, to show that for any $y \in \mathbb R^n$ there exists some $\hat{x} \in \mathbb R^n$ such that $f(\hat{x}) = \hat{y}$.
Is there another way to go about proving surjectivity? Or is this it—in which case, what's the right vector manipulation?
Thanks!

So, I don't know that you're expected to recognize this, but if $v\cdot v =1$, then this is the formula for reflecting the vector $x$ in the plane that is perpendicular to $v$. Which means that if you repeat the reflection you get the same vector back again, i.e.
$$ f(f(x)) = x $$ for all vectors $x$. You can verify this by grinding it out. And once you know $f(f(x)) = x$, do you see how you can easily prove surjectivity?