I have the function $f(x)={{x^3+9}\over{x^2}}$ and I'm trying to prove that it is injective in $(-\infty, 0)$ through the definition.
What I've done:
$ f(a)=f(b)\Leftrightarrow {{a^3+9}\over{a^2}}={{b^3+9}\over{b^2}}\Leftrightarrow b^2(a^3+9)=a^2(b^3+9)\Leftrightarrow a^3b^2+9b^2=a^2b^3+9a^2\Leftrightarrow\\ a^3b^2-a^2b^3=9a^2-9b^2\Leftrightarrow a^2b^2(a-b)=9(a-b)(a+b)\Leftrightarrow a^2b^2=9(a+b) $
From this point on, I'm pretty much doing circles without ever reaching $f(a)=f(b)\Leftrightarrow a=b$.
Question:
How can I prove that $f(x)$ is an injective function? Any tip that will help me get unstuck from where I am and points to me the right direction will be greatly appreciated.
Note that to prove injectivity, you only need to show that if $a,b \in (-\infty,0)$ with $f(a)=f(b)$, then $a=b$.
There are two cases to consider:
If $a=b$, then we are done.
Otherwise, assume $a \neq b$. Continuing from where you left, we get $$a^2b^2=9(a+b)$$
Since $x^2 \geq 0$ for any $x \in \mathbb{R}$, it follows that $a^2b^2 \geq 0$.
On the other hand, as $a,b<0$, it follows that $9(a+b)<0$
So, we have arrived at a contradiction. Thus, this case is not possible.
This shows that our required function is injective.