Prove the following statement: If $r_1$ and $r_2$ are real numbers whose quotient is irrational, then any real number $x$ can be approximated arbitrarily well by numbers of the form $z_{k_1,k_2}= k_1r_1+ k_2r_2, k_1, k_2$ integers; i.e., for every real number $x$ and every positive real number $p$ two integers $k_1$ and $k_2$ can be found such that $\left |x−(k_1r_1+k_2r_2)\right | < p$.
This question seems quite interesting, but I didn't know how to use the part about the quotient of $r_1$ and $r_2$ being irrational. How in the solution below did they get the conclusion that "all numbers $z_{m_1,m_2} = m_1r_1 + m_2r_2 (m_1, m_2 \in \mathbb{Z})$ are distinct"? Then the rest of the solution also seems a little bit fuzzy so if anyone can explain that would help.

Suppose $m_1 r_1 + m_2 r_2 = n_1 r_1 + n_2 r_2$, for $m_i, n_i \in \mathbf{Z}$. Then,
$$(m_1 - n_1) r_1 + (m_2 - n_2 ) r_2 = 0 $$
Since $\frac{r_1}{r_2}$ is irrational, this in particular implies $r_i \ne 0$. Thus, divide by $r_2$ to get
$$(m_1 - n_1)\frac{r_1}{r_2} + m_2 - n_2 = 0 \Rightarrow \frac{r_1}{r_2}=\frac{n_2-m_2}{m_1-n_1}$$
Since $m_i,n_i \in \mathbf{Z}$, then so are their differences. Thus, we have expressed the quotient as a quotient of integers, i.e. a rational number. This is a contradiction.