Prove that if $a,b,c,d$ are integers such that $$(a+2^{\frac{1}{3}}b+2^{\frac{2}{3}}c)^2 = d,$$ then $d$ is a perfect square.
In order for $(a+2^{\frac{1}{3}}b+2^{\frac{2}{3}}c)^2$ to be an integer, either $a+2^{\frac{1}{3}}b+2^{\frac{2}{3}}c$ has to be the square root of a positive integer or $a+2^{\frac{1}{3}}b+2^{\frac{2}{3}}c$ must be a perfect square. How do we deal with those conditions?
We expand and get $$ d=(a+2^{1/3}b+2^{2/3}c)^2\\ =(a^2+4bc)+(2c^2+2ab)2^{1/3}+(b^2+2ac)2^{2/3} $$ If $d$ is to be an integer, then from the expression above we must have $2c^2+2ab=b^2+2ac=0$. Assuming $a\neq0$, this means that $$ b=-\frac{c^2}{a}\\ c=-\frac{b^2}{2a} $$ Inserting one of these into the other, we get $$ b=-\frac{\frac{b^4}{4a^2}}{a}=-\frac{b^4}{4a^3}\\ b(b^3+4a^3)=0 $$ so since $a\neq0$, and $\sqrt[3]4\notin \Bbb Q$, we must have $b=0$, which gives $c=0$, and $d=a^2$, a perfect square.
On the other hand, if $a=0$, we have $c^2=b^2=0$, so $d=0$. Whether you count this as a perfect square is up to your definitions, but I would say that it is.