I was given this exercise, in the topic of complex Taylor serieses:
Let $f_1, f_2$ be anayltic functions over an open connected domain $D \subseteq \mathbb{C}$. suppose that they are both solutions of the ODE $f'(z)=P(z,f(z))$ where $P$ is a two-variable polynomial.
if there is $z_0 \in D$ such that $f_1(z_0)=f_2(z_0)$, prove that $f_1(z)=f_2(z)$ for all $z\in D$.
My initial approach was to prove that for all $n$, $f_1^{(n)}(z_0)=f_2^{(n)}(z_0)$, and thus have a common taylor series. I tried using induction, but there doesn't seem a way to go beyond the first derivative of the ODE. am I in the right direction?
If you are not to use analytical ODE theory, define a recursive sequence of polynomials $Q_k$ via $$ Q_0(z,w)=w\\ Q_{k+1}(z,w)=\frac{∂Q_k}{∂z}(z,w)+\frac{∂Q_k}{∂w}(z,w)·P(z,w) $$ and verify that $$ f^{(k)}(z)=Q_k(z,f(z)) $$ so that especially for the coefficients $a_k=\frac{f^{(k)}(z_0)}{k!}$ of the power series expansion in $z_0$ you get that all $$ a_k=\frac{Q_k(z_0,f(z_0))}{k!} $$ are completely determined as polynomial expressions in the initial point. As the series $f(z)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty a_k(z-z_0)^k$ converges per assumption, it is also unique.