We are given that if a sequence $(x_n)\subset F$ converges to some point $x\in M$, then $x\in F$. We must prove that $F$ is closed.
My attempt:
I strongly believe that the trick here is to come up with a special sequence in $F$ that converges to a point $x\in M$. Then we can use the hypothesis to say that $x\in F$, which will presumably help us prove the desired result, i.e., $M\setminus F$ is open.
Could someone give me a hint?
Suppose $F$ is not closed. Then there is a point $x \in M$ such that $x \notin F$ but every open ball (I'm assuming a metric space situation, as mentioned in my comment) around $x$ intersects $F$. Pick $x_n \in B(x, \frac{1}{n}) \cap F$ and show that $x_n \to x$, which contradicts the assumption on $F$.