Let's say that you want to prove that $f(x)=\begin{cases} \displaystyle \frac{x+1}{e^{2x}+1} &\text{if}\, x \ne 0\\ 1/2 &\text{if}\, x = 0\end{cases}$ is differentiable and continuous for $f:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R$. Is it enough to state that, since we know that linear and exponential functions are continuous then if you divide one by the other the result would still be a continuous function?
Then to show that $f(x)$ is differentiable, you'd have to use the formula $$\lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$ $$=\lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{(\frac{x+1}{e^{2x}+1}+h)-(\frac{x+1}{e^{2x}+1})}{h}$$ $$=\lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\frac{x+1}{e^{2x}+1}+h-\frac{x+1}{e^{2x}+1}}{h}$$ $$=\lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{h}{h}=1$$
Is that enough to show that $f(x)$ is differentiable and continuous? Also how would the fact that $f(x)$ is a piece-wise function affect the result?
Inasmuch as the derivative exists for $x\ne 0$, we need only show that $f$ is differentiable at $x=0$.
Using the definition of the derivative, we find
$$\begin{align} f'(0)&=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{\frac{h+1}{e^{2h}+1}-\frac12}{h}\\\\ &=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{1+2h-e^{2h}}{2h(e^{2h}+1)}\\\\ &=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{1+2h-(1+2h+O(h^2))}{2h(e^{2h}+1)}\\\\ &=0 \end{align}$$
Hence, $f$ is differentiable for all $x$.
As a side note, $f$ is also continuously differentiable at $0$ since for $x\ne 0$, we have
$$\lim_{x\to 0}f'(x)=\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{(e^{2x}+1)-2e^{2x}(x+1)}{(e^{2x}+1)^2}=0$$