This is a strange question and I don't know how to deal with this infinite series in p-adic evaluation. Any hint would be appreciated!
2026-03-27 11:49:13.1774612153
Prove that for any prime $p$ we have $|\sum_{n\ge 1} n^2(n+1)!|_p=2$
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1
I think that your question should be:
Since $n^2(n+1)!=(n-1)(n+2)!-(n-2)(n+1)!$, it follows that $$a_N:=\sum_{n=1}^Nn^2(n+1)!=\sum_{n=1}^N((n-1)(n+2)!-(n-2)(n+1)!)=(N-1)(N+2)!+2.$$ Hence $a_N-2=(N-1)(N+2)!$ converges $p$-adically to $0$, i. e. $a_N$ converges $p$-adically to $2$.