How can I prove that for any $x$ and $y$, given that $0 < x < y < 1$, $\frac{x}{y} > x$?
The way I think about it is the following:
$\frac{x}{y} > x \implies \frac{1}{y} > 1$ which is true, because as $0 < y < 1$, we know that $\frac{1}{y}$ must be greater than $0$, as we need many $y$ to end up summing up to $1$.
Whereas:
$\frac{x}{y} < x \implies \frac{1}{y} < 1$ which is false, because of the above statement $0 < y < 1$.
Are my assumptions right and is there a more formal way to state this relation between these numbers?
Thank you for the attention.
From $$\frac{x}{y}>x$$ we get by dividing by $$x>0$$ $$\frac{1}{y}>1$$ or $$1>y$$ which is true, since $1>y>0$