Does my proof hold up to prove that $0$ is the only eigenvalue of $A$ if $A^2 = 0$?
Let $A$ be an $n \times n$ matrix.
$A^2 = A\times A$ because of matrix multiplication.
If $A = k$, where $k \neq 0$, then $A^2 \neq 0$. Therefore if $A^2 = 0$, $A$ is the zero matrix.
If $A$ is the zero matrix, det($A^2) = 0$.
$\lambda \neq 0$ if $A$ is non-singular. $A$ is a non-singular matrix IFF $\det(A)$ $\neq 0$. The charcteristic equation is false when $\lambda = 0$ for a non-singular matrix so it can only be true when the matrix is singular, making $\det(A) = 0$.
$\lambda = 0$,
$\rightarrow$
$\begin{vmatrix}
0I - 0
\end{vmatrix}
= 0$
It is wrong. You seem to believe that if $A\neq0$, then $A^2\neq0$, which is false. Take $A=\left(\begin{smallmatrix}0&1\\0&0\end{smallmatrix}\right)$, for instance.
If $A$ had an eigenvalue $\lambda\neq0$, then there would be a vector $v\neq0$ such that $A.v=\lambda v$. So,\begin{align}A^2.v&=A.(A.v)\\&=A(\lambda v)\\&=\lambda(A.v)\\&=\lambda^2v\\&\neq0\end{align}and therefore $A^2\neq0$.