I have a question saying:
Prove that if $A \subseteq B$, then $R[A] \subseteq R[B]$
I am having some trouble getting a rigorous proof to me. Intuitively I can see how this is true, but I am struggling to prove this rigorously. So far I have:
$\forall x \in A$ it is true that $x \in B$. This implies that $(\forall y\in R[A]) x \in B$, as $(\forall y \in R[x] |x \in A)$ it is also true that $x\in B$. Therefore, $R[A] \subseteq R[B]$
I am aware there are probably many gaps in my logic but I am not sure where. Any hints or help would be greatly appreciated.
EDIT:
Thanks for your help. Is this now correct, or is there still more to do:
$\forall y \in R[A]$ there exist an $x$ such that $_xR_y$. This implies that $\forall y \in R[A]$ there exists an $x \in B$, as $\forall x\in A$ it is true that $x\in B$. Therefore, $y \in B$, and so $R[A] \subseteq R[B]$
Equivalent are:
Since $A\subseteq B$ the second bullet implies that $\langle x,y\rangle\in R$ for some $x\in B$ or equivalently $y\in R[B]$.
Proved is not that $y\in R[A]\implies y\in R[B]$ or equivalently $R[A]\subseteq R[B]$.