I want to prove that if $d \mid n \in \mathbb{N}$, then $\varphi(d) \mid \varphi(n)$.
It's given that $d \mid n$, so we know that $n = dm$, for some $m \in \mathbb{Z}$. Now, I want to show that $\varphi(d) \mid \varphi(n)$, i.e. that $\varphi(n) = k\varphi(d)$, for some $k \in \mathbb{Z}$. Drawing a blank of where to go from here.
Since $\varphi$ is a multiplicative function, and since from $a_i\mid b_i$ for $i=1,\ldots,n$ it follows that $\prod_{i=1}^m a_i\mid \prod_{i=1}^m b_i$, one can reduce the question to the case where $d$ and $n$ are both powers of the same prime. But from the formula $\varphi(p^k)=(p-1)^{\min(k,1)}p^{\max(0,k-1)}$ when $p$ is prime, the result is easily checked for that case (both exponents increase weakly monotonically with$~k$).