Usually change of bases in logarithms is just observance
$$x=b^{\log_bx}\implies \log_kx={(\log_bx)}{(\log_kb)}\implies \log_kb=\frac{\log_kx}{\log_bx}.$$
Supposing apriori we do not know inverse of log is exponentiation but rather a function $E:\mathbb R\times\mathbb R\rightarrow\mathbb R$ such that $E(b,\log_bx)=x$ is there a proof that says $\log_kx=\log_k(E(b,\log_bx))={(\log_bx)}{(\log_kb)}$ (this essentially gets to how to show $\log_k(E(a,b))=b\log_ka$ without knowing $E$ is exponentiation)?
Here is not exactly what you suggest but another approach which circumvents the fact that logarithm is the inverse of exponentiation. I list only the main points: