Trying to figure out the induction prof on this theorem: $$ \forall m,n \in \mathbb{Z}, ~ m,n \geq 1 ~\land~ m \equiv 1(\mod 2) ~\rightarrow~ m \mid \sum \limits_{i=0}^{m-1} (n ~+~ i) $$ I got the base:
$ m=3 \wedge n=5$
$ 3 | (5+0)+(5+1)+(5+2)$
$ 3 | 18$
Induction Proof: $$ m \mid \sum \limits_{i=0}^{m-1} (n ~+~ i) ~\rightarrow~ m+1 \mid \sum \limits_{i=0}^{m} (n ~+~ i) $$
$$ m+1 \mid \sum \limits_{i=0}^{m} (n ~+~ i) = \sum \limits_{i=0}^{m-1} (n ~+~ i) + (n+m) = (???)$$ And that is where i get confused. Can some one help me?
If $m|\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}(n+i)$ holds true for $\displaystyle n=r,m|\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}(r+i)$
For $\displaystyle n=r+1,\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}\{(r+1)+i\}=\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}(r+i)+\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}1$
$$\implies\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}(r+1+i)=\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}(r+i)+m$$
For the base case set $n=0$