Maybe I am wrong, but isn't $Σ$ being consistent equivalent or very similar to $Σ$ being satisfiable?
Since $Σ$ is consistent it is not a contradiction. Since $Σ \vdash A$, we know that $Σ$ is tautologically equivalent to $A$. Therefore $Σ ∩ \{A\}$ is consistent because it is satisfiable and not a contradiction.
Is this the right line of thinking here?
How would one go about answering this question properly?
For a logic that is (sound and) complete, a theory is indeed consistent if and only if it is satisfiable.
This is the case for standard first-order logic.
On the other hand, second or higher-order logic do not have complete proof systems according to the standard semantics. In those logics it is possible for a theory to be consistent (that is: the theory cannot prove a contradiction) and at the same time not being satisfiable (that is: it has no model).
You're explaining your proof idea a bit off. Just because $\Sigma\vdash A$ does not make $\Sigma$ and $A$ equivalent. For example, consider a language with three constant symbols $a,b,c$, and let $\Sigma$ be $\{a=b, b=c\}$ and $A$ be $a=c$. Then $\Sigma\vdash A$, but $A$ is true in more structures than $\Sigma$ is, so they are not equivalent.
Instead, what you'll probably want to do is describe how if $\Sigma\vdash A$ and $\Sigma,A\vdash\bot$, then you can construct a proof of $\Sigma\vdash\bot$ -- as a matter of syntactic manipulation of proofs.