How could I show this?
I know since they commute, $A$ and $B$ have the same set of eigenvectors and they can be diagonalized simultaneously. But I have trouble showing the above statement. Any help would be appreciated!
How could I show this?
I know since they commute, $A$ and $B$ have the same set of eigenvectors and they can be diagonalized simultaneously. But I have trouble showing the above statement. Any help would be appreciated!
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Suppose that $A={\rm diag}(a_1,\ldots ,a_n)$, and $B=(b_{ij})$. Then $AB=BA$ gives equations $(a_i-a_j)b_{kl}=0$ for $k\neq l$. This implies $b_{kl}=0$ for all $k\neq l$.