Prove that if $x \not = y$ , then $\{ a \} \not = \{ x , y \}$ for any set $a$.
It is a trivial problem, but I wanted to make my life more difficult and prove it using only three axioms if possible :
- The Axiom of Equality $\forall x \forall y (x = y \rightarrow \forall z (x \in z\leftrightarrow y \in z))$
- The Axiom of Extensionality $\forall x \forall y (x = y \leftrightarrow \forall u (u \in x \leftrightarrow u \in y))$
- The Axiom of Pairing $\forall a \forall b \exists z (\forall x (x \in z \leftrightarrow [x = a \vee x = b]))$
Here is what I have so far :
Suppose $\{ a \} = \{x , y\}$. Let $u \in \{ a \}$. The set $\{ a \}$ was constructed by applying the pairing axiom to the sets $a$ and $a$ , and so, from the part of the axiom that says $(x \in z \leftrightarrow [x = a \vee x = b])$ , we have $u = a$. The extensionality axiom implies $u \in \{x , y \}$. Similarly, we get $u = x \vee u = y$. So from the transitivity that follows from the extensionality axiom, we have $a = x \vee a = y$. What next ?
Of course none of that would be a problem if we could prove that it is always the case that $x \in \{ x , y \}$ , but I could not find any rigorous definition of membership $( \in )$ , so I have to rely only on those three axioms.
You only need the axiom of equality. Take $x \ne y$.
Suppose that $\{a\}= \{x,y\}$. Then we have $u \in \{x,y\}$ if and only if $u \in \{a\}$
Since $x\in \{x,y\}$ then $x \in \{a\}$, so $x=a$.
Since $y\in \{x,y\}$ then $y \in \{a\}$, so $y=a$.
This means $x=y$, which contradicts the hypothesis.