For the distribution $g(y)=ye^{-y}$ for $y\geq 0$ and $0$ otherwise, I have shown, through integrating by parts, that the moment generating function is:
$M_Y(t)=\int_0^\infty e^{ty}ye^{-y}dy=\left[\frac{y}{t-1}e^{y(t-1)}\right]_0 ^\infty-\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{t-1}e^{y(t-1)}=\left[\frac{y}{t-1}e^{y(t-1)}\right]_0 ^\infty +\frac{1}{(t-1)^2}$ given $t<1$.
However, I need to show that $\lim_{y\to\infty}\frac{y}{t-1}e^{y(t-1)} = 0$ in order to conclude that the $M_Y(t)=\frac{1}{(t-1)^2}$. I am having trouble evaluating the limit and can not apply the product rule for limits since the two constituent functions of it do not both have a finite limit.
Thank you for any help.
Using $(1)$, we see that for $t<1$ and $y>0$
$$\begin{align} \left|\frac{y}{t-1}e^{(t-1)y}\right|&=\frac{y}{|t-1|e^{|t-1|y}}\\\\ &\le \frac{y}{|t-1|\frac14 (t-1)^2y^2}\\\\ &=\frac4{|t-1|^3y} \end{align}$$
whence applying the squeeze theorem yields the coveted limit
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\lim_{y\to \infty} \frac{y}{t-1}e^{(t-1)y}=0}$$