By equivalent I mean the biconditional, as in $$\lnot (p \implies q) \iff p \land \lnot q$$
Given the definition of implication, I understand why this is true, but I need a bit of help showing this with a formal proof using rules like $\lor-\text{Elim}$ and $\bot-\text{Intro}$.
$\lnot (p \implies q) \equiv \lnot (q \lor \lnot p)$ (definition of implication)
$\lnot (q \lor \lnot p)\equiv (\lnot q)\land \lnot(\lnot p)$ (de Morgan's law)
$(\lnot q)\land \lnot(\lnot p)\equiv \lnot q\land p$ (involution of $\lnot$)
$\lnot q\land p \equiv p\land \lnot q$ (commutativity of $\land$)