How to prove this without using algebraism?
Prove that $\lVert\vec{u}\rVert=0 \iff \vec{u}=\vec{0}$.
Question 1.8 of Geometria Analítica Third Ed., Ivan Camargo & Paulo Boulos
How to prove this without using algebraism?
Prove that $\lVert\vec{u}\rVert=0 \iff \vec{u}=\vec{0}$.
Question 1.8 of Geometria Analítica Third Ed., Ivan Camargo & Paulo Boulos
Recalling that, by definition, norms are both:
We prove the two implications, starting with $\implies$:
$\lVert\vec{u}\rVert = 0$ implies $\vec{u} = \vec{0}$ by positive definiteness.
Moving on to $\impliedby$:
$\vec{u} = \vec{0}$ implies $\vec{u} = 0\vec{u}$ and thus $\lVert\vec{u}\rVert = \lVert 0\vec{u}\rVert$ and $\lVert 0\vec{u}\rVert = 0\lVert \vec{u}\rVert = 0$ by homogeneity.
Note that sometimes in the definition of norm positive definitness is, in fact, replaced by $\lVert \vec{u} \rVert = 0 \iff \vec{u} = \vec{0}$, since it is equivalent and a very commonly used property of norms.
Hope this helps!