Prove that $p^2 | (p!+p)$ for any prime $p.$
So far I have: If $p$ is prime, then $p$ divides $[(p-1)!+1].$ Therefore $(p-1)!+1\equiv 0 \operatorname{mod}p.$ Where do I go from there?
Prove that $p^2 | (p!+p)$ for any prime $p.$
So far I have: If $p$ is prime, then $p$ divides $[(p-1)!+1].$ Therefore $(p-1)!+1\equiv 0 \operatorname{mod}p.$ Where do I go from there?
We have $(p-1)!=px-1$ where $x\in \Bbb Z.$ Therefore $p!+p=p\cdot (p-1)!+p=p(px-1)+p=p^2x.$