I want to prove that $ \phi _\mathfrak{m}: M_\mathfrak m \rightarrow N_ \mathfrak m $ is injective then $ \phi: M \rightarrow N$ is injective, where $M_ \mathfrak m$ is localization at maximal ideal $\mathfrak m$.
If $\phi (m_1)= \phi(m_2) $ then $\frac{\phi(m_1)}{1}=\frac{\phi(m_2)}{1} $. As $\phi _\mathfrak m$ is injective this gives $\frac{m_1}{1}=\frac{m_2}{1} $ which gives $m_1=m_2 $.
Is this argument correct? It seems surprisingly elementary and short.
2026-04-03 16:47:23.1775234843
prove that $ \phi _\mathfrak{m}: M_\mathfrak m \rightarrow N_ \mathfrak m $ is injective then $\phi : M \rightarrow N$ is injective.
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It is not true in general. For example set $R:=\mathbb{Z}$, $m:=5\mathbb{Z}$, and $M=N:=\mathbb{Z}_4\cong \mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$, and let $\phi: M\rightarrow N$ by $\phi(x)=2x$. Clearly $\phi$ is a non injective $R$-module homomorphism, but $M_m=N_m=0$ since $4\in Ann_\mathbb{Z}(M_m=N_m)\setminus 5\mathbb{Z}$. Hence, $ \phi_m: M_m\rightarrow N_m $ is injective.
Note the following theorem: