I friend of mine sent me this problem a while ago, but I still can't figure it out. (He can't figure it out either.) I figured here would be a good place to ask for help.
Prove: $$\prod_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{e^2}\left(\frac{n+1}{n-1}\right)^n=\frac{e^3}{4\pi}$$
The logarithm of the LHS equals
$$ L=\sum_{n\geq 2}\left[-2+2n\,\text{arctanh}\frac{1}{n}\right]=\sum_{n\geq 2}\sum_{m\geq 1}\frac{1}{\left(m+\frac{1}{2}\right)n^{2m}}=\sum_{m\geq 1}\frac{\zeta(2m)-1}{m+\frac{1}{2}}\tag{1} $$ and we may recall that $$ \frac{1-\pi z\cot(\pi z)}{2} = \sum_{m\geq 1}\zeta(2m) z^{2m} \tag{2} $$ to get that: $$ L = \int_{0}^{1}\left(\frac{1-3z^2}{1-z^2}-\pi z\cot(\pi z)\right)\,dz\tag{3} $$ and $L=3-\log(4\pi)$ follows from the connection between the primitive of $z\cot(z)$ and the dilogarithm, proving the stated conjecture: $$ \int z\cot(z)\,dz = z\log\left(1-e^{2iz}\right)-\frac{i}{2}\left(z^2+\text{Li}_2(e^{2iz})\right)\tag{4} $$
Nice question!