I feel like the proof is very similar to the one in this link:
$S^n \backslash S^m $ homotopy equivalent to $ S^{n-m-1} $
But I could not spot out where will be the difference? could anyone help me with this, please?
Thanks!
I feel like the proof is very similar to the one in this link:
$S^n \backslash S^m $ homotopy equivalent to $ S^{n-m-1} $
But I could not spot out where will be the difference? could anyone help me with this, please?
Thanks!
On
In fact $S^m *S^n$ and $S^{m+n+1}$ are homeomorphic. This is proved as in https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3354659:
$S^m \approx S^0 * \ldots * S^0$ witk $m+1$ factors, $S^n \approx S^0 * \ldots * S^0$ witk $n+1$ factors, thus $S^m * S^n \approx S^0 * \ldots * S^0$ witk $m+n+2$ factors, the latter being homeomorphic to $S^{m+n+1}$.
Here are some facts that you can assemble:
Can you combine them together to get the result?