Show that the sequence $\langle a_n\rangle$ where
$a_n = 1+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{9}... + \frac{1}{4n-3}$
does not converge, whereas $\langle b_n\rangle$ defined by $b_n = \frac{1}{n} a_n$ converges to 0.
My Approach: I was able to prove that $\langle a_n\rangle$ does not converge by showing that it is not a Cauchy sequence but not able to prove that $\langle b_n\rangle$ is converging sequence. Is there a theorem related to this?.
I completely misread the question at first. Let's try again. We know that for $k\geq1$, we have $4k-3\geq k$, and hence $$ \sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{4k-3}\leq \sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k}. $$ The sum on the right gives the harmonic numbers, $H_n$, which are approximated asymptotically by $\ln(n)$ (given by a Riemann approximation of $\int_1^n\frac{1}{x}dx$). Thus since $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\ln(n)}{n}=0,$$ we may apply the squeeze theorem to $$0\leq \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{4k-3}\leq \frac{C+\ln(n)}{n}$$ (where $C$ is an arbitrarily large, fixed constant to make the inequality hold). Thus we have $b_n\to0$.