Is it valid to say that since $\sqrt{n(n + 1)} > 1$ and $n + \frac{1}{2} > 1$ that we can square both sides without having to assume anything about their inequality?
Also can someone show me how with induction or strong induction?
Is it valid to say that since $\sqrt{n(n + 1)} > 1$ and $n + \frac{1}{2} > 1$ that we can square both sides without having to assume anything about their inequality?
Also can someone show me how with induction or strong induction?
For all $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $$\sqrt{n(n+1)}<\sqrt{n^2+n+\frac{1}{4}}=\sqrt{\left(n+\frac{1}{2}\right)^2}=n+\frac{1}{2}$$