Wolfram Alpha gives the following equality, which seems to be valid for all $x>0$ :
$$\sum_{n\geq 1} \frac{1}{x+n^2}=\frac{\pi\sqrt{x}\operatorname{coth}(\pi\sqrt{x})-1}{2x}$$
My question is : how to prove it ?
Note that taking $x\to 0$ yields the famous $\frac{\pi^2}{6}$ on both sides, which is comforting.
EDIT : This proof is inspired from Atmos's answer on Fourier coefficients. Let us denote $S=\sum_{n\geq 1} \frac{1}{x+n^2}$.
Define $f_\alpha:x\in]-\pi,\pi]\mapsto e^{\alpha x}$. Its complex Fourier coefficients are $$c_n(f_\alpha)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f_\alpha(t) e^{-int}\:dt\\ =\frac{(-1)^n\sinh(\alpha \pi)}{\pi}\frac{1}{\alpha-in} $$ Recall the Parseval equality $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} |c_n(f_\alpha)|^2 = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} |f_\alpha(x)|^2\:dx \label{eqn1}\tag{1}$$
The left-hand-side of \eqref{eqn1} is related to $S$ by $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} |c_n(f_\alpha)|^2=\frac{\sinh^2(\alpha x)}{\pi^2}\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\alpha^2+n^2}\\ =\frac{\sinh^2(\alpha x)}{\pi^2}\left(2S+\frac{1}{\alpha^2}\right)$$
The right-hand side of \eqref{eqn1} is given by $$\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} |f_\alpha(x)|^2\:dx=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{2\alpha x}\:dx=\frac{1}{2\alpha\pi}\sinh(2\alpha\pi)=\frac{1}{\alpha\pi}\cosh(\alpha\pi)\sinh(\alpha\pi)$$
Putting the pieces together gives the desired result (replace $\alpha=\sqrt{x}$)
$$S=\frac{\pi\alpha \coth(\alpha\pi)-1}{2\alpha^2}$$
I write it as an exercise to you.
Let $\alpha \in \mathbb{R}^{*}$ and $f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ the $2\pi$-periodic function given by $$ f\left(x\right)=\text{cosh}\left(\alpha x \right) \text{ for }x \in \left]-\pi,\pi\right] $$
Deduce from the previous question both sum $$ \sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^n}{n^2+\alpha^2} \text{ as well as }\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+\alpha^2} $$
Take $\alpha=\sqrt{x}$ for $x \in \mathbb{R}^{*+}$ and conclude.
EDIT : $f$ is even hence $b_n=0$ and we have with integration by part $$ \forall n \in \mathbb{N}^{*}, \ a_n=\left(-1\right)^n\frac{2 \alpha\text{sh}\left(\pi \alpha\right)}{\pi\left(n^2+\alpha^2\right)} $$ and $$ \frac{a_0}{2}=\frac{1}{2 \pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\text{cosh}\left(\alpha x\right)\text{d}t=\frac{1}{\alpha \pi}\text{sh}\left(\alpha \pi\right) $$
For $x= \pi $ $$\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+\alpha^2}= \frac{\pi \alpha \text{coth}\left(\alpha \pi\right)-1}{2 \alpha^2} $$
For $x=0$ $$\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^n}{n^2+\alpha^2}= \frac{1}{2 \alpha^2}\left(\frac{\alpha \pi}{\text{sh}\left(\alpha \pi\right)}-1\right) $$