I saw this proof, but I don't understand one point.
$f(x) \le g(y)$ for $x,y \in D$
$\rightarrow$ sup$f(x)$ $\le$ $g(y)$
$\rightarrow$sup$f(x)$ $\le$ inf$g(y)$
I think from the second line to third line of proof, it assumes that inf$g(y)$ $\in$ $g(D)$.
But, how can we prove this?
Thanks in advance.
Since $f(x)\le g(y)$ for $x$,$y\in D$
$g(y)$ is an upper bound for $f(x)$, so the least upper bound is less than or equal $g(y)$
Thus $\sup f(x) \le g(y)$. That implies $\sup f(x)$ is a lower bound for $g(y)$ so the greatest lower bound of $g(y)$ is greater than or equal to sup $f(x)$.
That is:
$\sup f(x) \le \inf g(y)$