I have this lemma:
If X is a complex inner product space and $S,T \in B(X)$ are such that $(Sz,z)=(Tz,z)\forall z \in X$, then $S=T$.
$B(x)$ is the set of bounded linear operators from X to X.
$(,)$ is the inner-product function.
I want to prove this lemma. But I do not know how to prove it.
I tried something like this:
Assume for contradiction that the transformations are not the same.
Then there is an $z'$, such that $(Sz',z')=(Tz',z')$, but $Sz'\ne Tz'$ . Then $z'\ne0$, $Sz'-Tx'\ne0 $, but $z'$ and $Sz'-Tz'$ are orthogonal. But I don't see how to continue.
Any tips?
Let $Q=S-T$. By assumption, $\langle Qv,v \rangle =0$ for all $v=\alpha x + \beta y$. Now, $$ 0=\langle Q(\alpha x+y),\alpha x+y \rangle = |\alpha|^2 \langle Qx,x \rangle + \langle Qy,y \rangle + \alpha \langle Qx,y \rangle + \bar{\alpha} \langle Qy,x \rangle \\ = \alpha \langle Qx,y \rangle + \bar{\alpha} \langle Qy,x \rangle. $$ Choosing first $\alpha =1$ and then $\alpha =i$, we get $$ \langle Qx,y \rangle + \langle Qy,x \rangle=0 $$ and $$ \langle Qx,y \rangle - \langle Qy,x \rangle =0. $$ Sum and conclude that $\langle Qx,y \rangle =0$ for all $x$ and all $y$. Hence $Q=0$.
You should observe that the statement is false in a real inner product space: even in $\mathbb{R}^2$ there are matrices $Q$ for which $Qx$ is always orthogonal to $x$, and yet $Q$ is non-trivial.