Let $f_{1}(x),f_{2}(x),\dots,f_{n}(x)$ be $n$ bounded and uniformly continuous functions on $\mathbb{R}$. Prove that their product $f_1(x)f_2(x)\cdots f_n(x)$ is also a uniformly continuous function on $\mathbb{R}$
My approach is to use mathematical induction. At the last step, I need to prove that the product of two uniformly continuos functions (which are the product of the first $n-1$ uniformly continuous functions by inductive hypothesis and the $n^{\text{th}}$ function), which doesn't require me to use the fact the functions are bounded.
So, I sense that this approach is not correct (but I'm not sure why) as I didn't use the fact that the functions are bounded. If it's really wrong, how do I make use of the fact that the functions are bounded? Thank you :)
The product of two uniformly continuous functions might not be uniformly continuous.
Take $f_1(x)=f_2(x)=x$. $f_1,f_2$ are uniformly continuous but $f(x)=f_1(x)f_2(x)=x^2$ is not. If you were able to prove that the product of two real functions defined on $\mathbb R$ is uniformly continuous... there is something wrong in your proof.
So indeed, to prove that $f_1f_2$ is uniformly continuous, you have to use that $f_1,f_2$ are bounded.