I tried to use the MCT monotone convergence theorem but it failed since it is not monotone. So I’m not sure how to prove that it convergence, I thought about using Cauchy definition. I found that the limit is -2 and 1 but I’m not sure which one to select since it is not monotone which value it converges to.
2026-03-28 21:51:37.1774734697
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Prove that the sequence $(_)$ defined below converges, and find its limit $_1= 2, _{n+1} = \frac{2}{1 + _n}$, for all $n\in \mathbb{N}$.
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if $x_{n}$ has limit, so does $x_{n+1}$. Let's denote $\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} x_{n} = a \Rightarrow a = \frac{2}{1+a} \Rightarrow a^2 + a - 2 = 0$. The roots of this equation are 1 and -2, but -2 can't be the limit, because $x_{n} > 0 \ \forall n$, thus $\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} x_{n} = 1$
Let X=$$\begin{array}{l}\lim_{n\to\infty}x_n=\frac{2}{1+\frac{2}{1+\frac{2}{...\infty}}}\end{array}$$
Implies X=2/(1+x)
X^2+X-2=0
(X+2)(X-1)=0
Since X is obviously>0
X=1