Prove that for any $a\in\mathbb{Z}_p$, the sequence satisfying $a^{p^n}\equiv a^{p^{n-1}}$mod $p^n$ for $n\geq 1$, converges to the Teichmüller Representative congruent to $a$ mod $p$.
So a p-adic integer has general form $a = a_0+a_1p+a_2p^2+...$ , for $a_i\in\{0,...,p-1\}$.
Now if $a^p\equiv a$ mod $p$, then $a^p$ and $a$ must have the same constant term. And if $a^{p^2}\equiv a^p$ mod $p$ then $a^{p^2}$ and $a$ must agree in their first two coefficients. Continuing on in this way, this sequence seems to be approaching $a$, which is what I started with, but this can't be right, what am I not understanding?
Edit: Ok I'm revising this, $a^{p^{n}}$ picks up its $p^{n-1}$ coefficient from $a^{p^{n-1}}$, could someone still give me some clarification on how one shows this becomes the Teichmuller Representative? I think I just need someone to tell me the 'right' way to think about it.
I answered this to a large extent earlier:
It is not necessarily the case that $a$ and $a^{p^2}$ agree on the first two terms, or that $a^{p^n}$ shares more and more terms with $a$. Setting $p=3$, $a=2+1\cdot3$, we have $a^{3^2}=2+2\cdot3+\cdots\not\equiv 2+3\bmod 9$.