where the series has the nth term given by $$a_n = \frac {1\cdot3\cdot5\cdot\cdots\cdot(2n-1)}{2\cdot4\cdot6\cdot\cdots\cdot2n}$$
I managed to show that $$a_n = \frac {(2n)!} {4^n (n!)^2}$$
But it doesn't really help.. I'd like to compare it with something since the ratio test doesn't work.
The binomial:
$$\binom{2n}{n}=\frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2}$$ is the middle, and hence largest, term of the binomial expansion of $\left(1+1 \right)^{2n}=2^{2n}=4^n.$ Since there are $2n+1$ terms, this means that $$\binom{2n}{n}\geq\ \frac{4^n}{2n+1}$$
and hence $$a_n=\frac{1}{4^n}\binom{2n}{n}\geq \frac{1}{2n+1}$$
See more approximations for the central binomial coefficients.