I want to see if this sequence $a_n=\dfrac{1}{n+1}+\dfrac{1}{n+2}+\dots \dfrac{1}{2n}$ is Cauchy.
What I have done:
I want to prove $|a_{n+m}-a_n|<\epsilon $. Using the triangle inequality,
$|a_{n+m}-a_n| =\bigg|\dfrac{1}{2(n+1)}+\dfrac{1}{2(n+2)}+ \dots + \dfrac{1}{2(n+m)}\bigg|\leq \bigg|\dfrac{1}{2(n+1)}\bigg|+\bigg|\dfrac{1}{2(n+2)}\bigg|+ \dots + \bigg|\dfrac{1}{2(n+m)}\bigg| = \dfrac{1}{2}·\bigg(\dfrac{1}{n+1}+\dfrac{1}{n+2} + \dots + \dfrac{1}{n+m}\bigg)$.
And here I dont't know how to continue.
You aren't going to be able to solve it like that, because the series $\frac{1}{n}$ diverges, you need to take into account the sign of the summands.
First notice that $a_{n+1}-a_n=\frac{1}{2n+2}+\frac{1}{2n+1}-\frac{1}{n+1}=\frac{1}{2n+1}-\frac{1}{2n+2}=\frac{1}{(2n+1)(2n+2)}$.
It follows that if $m>N$ then $a_m-a_N\leq \sum\limits_{n=N}^\infty \frac{1}{(2n+1)(2n+2)}$.
Notice that the series $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(2n+1)(2n+2)}$ converges as it is dominated by $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}$ which is well-known to converge.
We conclude that the sums of the tails converge to zero, so we are done.