The hint given is that we can assume the set of real numbers has a basis. I've seen several other questions of this form, but all of them use terminology which I am unfamiliar with ($Q$-linear, extend linearly to $\mathbb{R}$ etc).
Edit : I know what a Hamel basis is, and I don't have to use the axiom of choice to show that it exists or anything. I'm essentially told that I can assume it exists.
Well, not disregarding the other answers, I suggest that it is better understood in the following order. Firstly, there is a
Then assuming the existence of a Hamel $\mathbb{Q}$-basis $(b_i)_{i\in I}$ of $\mathbb{R}$, remark that the indexing set $I$ cannot be finite (otherwise $\mathbb{R}$ would be countable, or if $I=\emptyset$, $\mathbb{R}$ would be a singleton !) and pick $i_0\not= i_1$ in $I$. Then the mapping defined by $f(b_i)=b_i$ if $i\notin \{i_0,i_1\}$ and $f(b_j)=b_{1-j}$ (exchange $i_0,i_1$) is discontinuous. The final argument goes as follows.
If $f$, constructed as above, were continuous, we would have $f(x)=ax$ for some $a\in \mathbb{R}$. From the fact the basis is not finite, one can choose $i_2\notin\{i_0,i_1\}$ and by definition $f(b_{i_2})=b_{i_2}$ which entails $a=1$ ($b_{i_2}\not=0$ as element of a basis). Now (still supposing $f$ continuous) $f$ must be the identity which contradicts $f(b_{i_0})=b_{i_1}$. Hence this $f$ is not continuous.
Final remark The lemma shows that among additive functions $\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ the class of ($\mathbb{R}$-) linear functions is exactly the same as the class of continuous ones. That's why answers of this question are the same even if their wording is different.