I'm stuck on this problem for a long time. I can't find a proper solution for this without using complex calculations. I hope some one can help me with this problem:
Let $ (\;|\;)$ be the standard inner product on $\mathbb C^{2}$. Prove that there is no non-zero linear operator $T$ on $\mathbb C^{2}$ such that $(\alpha|T\alpha) = 0\;$ for every $\alpha$ in $\mathbb C^{2}$. Generalize.
This is not possible in $\mathbb{C}^2$ and this is slightly tricky.
Note that the links provided by Jonas Meyer show you the most straighforward route: if $(Tx,x)=0$ for all $x$, then $(Tx,y)=0$ for al $x,y$ so $T=0$.
Now here is another approach which is an opportunity to see two important facts about bounded linear operator on a complex Hilbert space.
Claim 1: a bounded operator on a complex Hilbert space is self-adjoint ($T^*=T$) if and only if $(Tx,x)\in\mathbb{R}$ for all $x$.
Remark: this fails in the real case as shows the example down below. Note the use of $iy$ and semilinearity of the inner product in the last step of the proof.
Proof: If $T^*=T$ first then $$ (Tx,x)=(x,T^*x)=(x,Tx)=\overline{(Tx,x)} $$ is real.
Conversely, we will prove that $(x,Ty)=(Tx,y)$ for all $x,y$, which is clearly equivalent to $T$ being self-adjoint since $(Tx,y)=(x,T^*y)$.
Since $(Tx+Ty,x+y)$ is real, we have $$ (Tx+Ty,x+y)=\overline{(Tx+Ty,x+y)}=(x+y,Tx+Ty). $$ Expanding the lhs and the rhs yields $$ (Tx,y)+(Ty,x)=(x,Ty)+(y,Tx). $$ Applying this to $x$ and $iy$ yields $$ (Tx,y)-(Ty,x)=(x,Ty)-(y,Tx). $$ Summing these two equalities, we get $(Tx,y)=(x,Ty)$ as desired.
End of the proof.
Claim 2: If $T$ is a self-adjoint bounded operator on a Hilbert space, then $$ \|T\|=\sup_{\|x\|=1}|(Tx,x)|. $$
Proof: the inequality $\geq$ is trivial. The other direction use the fact that $$ \|T\|=\sup_{\|x\|=1}\|Tx\|=\sup_{\|x\|=\|y\|=1}|(Tx,y)| $$ which follows directly from the fact that $\|z\|=\sup_{\|y\|=1}|(x,y)|$, a simple consequence of Cauchy-Schwarz.
From here, you can use the polarization identity and the parallelogram law to conclude. But I will only give details if you ask since this is already pretty long.
End of proof.
As an application of the above claims, if $(Tx,x)=0$ for all $x$, then $T$ is self-adjoint so $$ \|T\|=\sup_{\|x\|=1}|(Tx,x)|=0, $$ hence $T=0$.
So such a nonzero $T$ does not exist.
But it is possible in $\mathbb{R}^2$: $$\left(\matrix{0& 1\\-1&0} \right).$$