I'm stuck with this one, is the 14th exercise on my notes and the most difficult so far.
Prove that $U$ an open set of a topological space $X$ iff for all $A\subset X$ we have $Cl(U\cap Cl(A))=Cl(U\cap A)$.
I've been struggling thinking both implications and I didn't get anything. What I only proved before is
$$Cl(A\cap B)\subset Cl(A) \cap Cl(B).$$
I'd appreciate a hint or some help with this one.
Thanks for your time.
Suppose $U$ is open. Let $x\in Cl(U\cap Cl(A))$, i.e. for every (open) neighborhood $V$ of $x$ we can find a point $y\in U\cap V \cap Cl(A)\neq \varnothing$. This means in turn that we can find a point $z\in U\cap V\cap A\neq \varnothing$, because $U\cap V$ is an open neighborhood of $y$ (here we used that $U$ is open). So for any open neighborhood $V$ of $x$ we have found a point in $V\cap U\cap A$, and so by definition $x\in Cl(U\cap A)$. Conversely, if $x\in Cl(U\cap A)$, for any open neighborhood $V$ of $x$ we can find a point $y\in U\cap V\cap A \subseteq U\cap V\cap Cl(A)\neq \varnothing$. Thus $x\in Cl(U\cap Cl(A))$.
Suppose now that $U$ is not open and consider $A=X\setminus U$. Then $Cl(U\cap A)=Cl(\varnothing )=\varnothing$, but since $U$ is not open we can find some $x\in U$ such that for all neighborhoods $V$ of $x$ we have $V\nsubseteq U$, i.e. $x\in Cl(A)$. So $x\in U\cap Cl(A)\subseteq Cl(U\cap Cl(A)) \nsubseteq Cl(U\cap A)=\varnothing$.