Prove that $x+(\overline{x}\cdot\overline{y})=x+\overline{y}$
The values of both these boolean functions show that these 2 are equivalent.
$x$ $\overline{x}$ $y$ $\overline{x}\cdot\overline{y}$ $x+(\overline{x}\cdot\overline{y})$ $x+\overline{y}$
0 1 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 1
1 0 1 0 1 1
I proved this. Missed the distributive law. \begin{eqnarray*} x+(\overline{x}\cdot\overline{y})&=&(x+\overline{x})\cdot(x+\overline{y})\\ &=&1\cdot(x+\overline{y})\\ &=&x+\overline{y} \end{eqnarray*}
I often find the answer just before or after posting the question to SE. Don't know why.
An alternative solution to Caran's:
$x+\bar y = x+(x+\bar x)\cdot\bar y = (x+x\cdot\bar y) +\bar x\cdot \bar y = x+\bar x\cdot\bar y$