Prove that $X \setminus \operatorname{Int}A \subseteq \overline {X\setminus A} $
$\overline {X\setminus A} =\{x \in X : \text{$x$ is adherent to $X\setminus A$}\} $
$x$ is adherent to $X\setminus A$ means that every open subset of $X$ has nonempty intersection with $X \setminus A$
$\operatorname{Int}A=\bigcup \{U : U \subset A, \text{$U$ open}\}$
$x \in X \setminus \operatorname{Int}A \implies x \notin \operatorname{Int}A $
I am trying to prove it in contrary:
$U \cap (X \setminus A) = \emptyset $
$U^{c} \cup (X \setminus A)^{c} = X$
$U^c \cup A = X$
$x \in U^c \cup A \implies x\in U^{c} \ \lor x\in A$
I am not sure if it makes sense. I don't know what to do now.
You can indeed prove that if $x\notin\overline{X\setminus A}$, then $x\notin X\setminus\operatorname{Int}A$ (that is, $x\in\operatorname{Int}A$).
Suppose $x\notin\overline{X\setminus A}$; then, by definition, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U\cap(X\setminus A)=\emptyset$.
Therefore $U\subseteq A$ (this is the step you're missing to notice). Hence, by definition, $x\in\operatorname{Int}A$, as you wished to prove.